[Dec-2025] Check your preparation for WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering On-Demand Exam
Practice Exam Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Realistic Dumps Verified Questions
NEW QUESTION # 93
A large corporation is considering expanding its operations into a new geographic region. The corporation is concerned about the potential dangers associated with this expansion.
What is the most important factor to consider when evaluating the potential risks in this scenario?
- A. Likelihood of attack
- B. Threat of attack
- C. Inherent risk
- D. Impact of attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B - Inherent risk.
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) defines inherent risk as the level of risk that exists before any controls or mitigation strategies are implemented. When evaluating expansion into new regions, the corporation must first understand the baseline level of risk (political, regulatory, cyber threats, etc.) inherent to the new environment.
Impact (A) refers to consequences but doesn't capture the natural risk level. Threat of attack (C) and likelihood (D) are specific aspects, but inherent risk (B) provides a comprehensive starting point for evaluating all potential dangers.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Inherent risk is the natural level of risk present in a business activity or environment before applying controls, critical for evaluating new ventures or expansions."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Enterprise Risk Management
NEW QUESTION # 94
What is a common characteristic of a proprietary software license?
- A. A business gains the right to own the software.
- B. A business gains the right to modify the software's source code.
- C. A business gains the right to distribute the software freely.
- D. A business gains the right to use the software.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Aproprietary software licensetypically grants a business or user theright to usethe software.
* Unlike open-source licenses, proprietary licenses do not usually allow modification, redistribution, or reverse engineering.
* The software remains the property of the company that created it, and the licensee is only granted specific, limited rights.
* Examples:Many enterprise software applications come with proprietary licenses that specify the terms of use.
References:
* "Open Source Licensing: Software Freedom and Intellectual Property Law" by Lawrence Rosen.
* "Proprietary Software Licenses Explained" from Software Engineering Institute.
NEW QUESTION # 95
What is the role of the compiler?
- A. To run scripting languages to test one line of code at a time
- B. To take the most recent line of code, translate it, and execute the machine code
- C. To create an executable program by translating all of the code at one time
- D. To create executable code that is compatible with different operating systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
Step by Step Comprehensive Detailed ExplanationA compiler is a program that translates source code written in a high-level programming language into machine code.
* Definition: A compiler processes the entire source code of a program and translates it into a machine code executable.
* Functionality: This process is typically done in several stages, including lexical analysis, syntax analysis, semantic analysis, optimization, and code generation.
* Output: The result is an executable file that can be run on a specific operating system.
References
* "Compilers: Principles, Techniques, and Tools" by Alfred V. Aho, Monica S. Lam, Ravi Sethi, and Jeffrey D. Ullman
* NISTIR 7860, "C++ Coding Standards"
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which risk management strategy will supplement privacy requirements for data on an electronic health record (EHR) system?
- A. Implementation of role-based access controls and encryption of all sensitive data
- B. Configuration of the system to disable universal serial bus (USB) ports on all workstations
- C. Encryption of all network traffic between the EHR system and external networks
- D. Implementation of a strict firewall policy to restrict access to the system's server
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Implementation of role-based access controls and encryption of all sensitive data.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), the combination of role- based access control (RBAC) and encryption protects sensitive health data by ensuring only authorized users can access necessary information, while encryption ensures the data remains secure both at rest and in transit.
Disabling USB ports (A) prevents data exfiltration but does not fulfill broad privacy requirements. Encrypting network traffic (B) protects in-transit data only. Firewalls (D) protect against unauthorized access but do not manage user roles or internal data privacy.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Protecting sensitive health data requires a combination of access control models such as RBAC and encryption, ensuring both authorization and confidentiality."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Privacy and Data Protection Strategies
NEW QUESTION # 97
The security team manages a set of legacy firewalls that have been in production for nearly tenyears. The organization recently issued a mandate requiring that all firewalls be configured with intrusion detection controls that alert the team in real time based on known threats.
- A. Replacing the legacy firewalls with a reverse proxy
- B. Replacing the legacy firewalls with a load balancer
- C. Replacing the legacy firewalls with next-generation firewalls (NGFWs)
- D. Replacing the legacy firewalls with a security information and event management (SIEM) appliance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs)offer a unified solution that includes traditional packet filtering andadvanced detection featureslike Intrusion Detection and Prevention (IDPS). This makes them the most efficient and scalable option for replacing legacy firewalls in modern environments.
NIST SP 800-94 Rev. 1 (Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems):
"NGFWs integrate IDS/IPS features with traffic inspection, enabling detection and prevention of attacks in real time."
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:Security Operations
Topic:Implement detection and prevention solutions (e.g., NGFWs, IDS/IPS)
NEW QUESTION # 98
A company is concerned about advanced persistent threats and wants to implement a security solution that can detect any unusual actions. The company wants to analyze the actions and trends of users and entities to identify any potential security risks.
Which security technology meets the needs of the company?
- A. Hardware security module (HSM)
- B. Two-factor authentication
- C. Antivirus tools
- D. User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA)
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is A - User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA).
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) explains that UEBA tools analyze patterns of user and entity behavior to detect anomalies that could indicate insider threats, compromised accounts, or advanced persistent threats (APTs). UEBA focuses on deviations from normal activity patterns to identify risks that traditional signature-based systems might miss.
HSMs (B) protect cryptographic keys but do not monitor behavior. Antivirus tools (C) detect known malware but do not perform behavioral analytics. Two-factor authentication (D) secures access but does not detect unusual behavior patterns.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) identifies potential security threats by analyzing deviations from typical user and system activity patterns."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Threat Detection Technologies
NEW QUESTION # 99
An IT organization needs to enable secure communication across virtual networks in Microsoft Azure and Amazon Web Services. Which protocol will offer the most reliable and secure method for data transport?
- A. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
- B. Secure Shell (SSH)
- C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
IPsecis anend-to-end encryption protocol suitethat operates at thenetwork layer, providingauthentication, integrity, and confidentialitybetween virtual networks-even across different cloud environments like Azure and AWS.
NIST SP 800-77 Rev. 1 (Guide to IPsec VPNs):
"IPsec provides network-layer protection through authentication headers (AH) and encapsulating security payloads (ESP), suitable for securing traffic across untrusted environments." FTP is insecure, and SSH is more suitable for command-line access or remote sessions-not secure VPC-to- VPC tunnels.
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:Cryptography
Topic:Use encryption protocols like IPsec for secure data transmission between networks
NEW QUESTION # 100
A healthcare organization would like to work with another healthcare organization without needing to maintain identified accounts for members of the other organization.
Which technology concept should the company use?
- A. Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
- B. Single sign-on (SSO)
- C. Federated authentication
- D. Cloud identity provider
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D - Federated authentication.
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) explains that federated authentication allows two or more organizations to share identity information securely without needing to maintain separate user accounts for external users. It supports cross-organizational access based on trusted identity providers.
Cloud identity providers (A) offer centralized authentication but don't address federation directly. SSO (B) simplifies authentication within an organization. MFA (C) adds security but does not enable cross- organization authentication.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Federated authentication enables organizations to share identity information and trust external credentials without the need to manage separate accounts for external users."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Identity Federation and Single Sign- On Concepts
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which database has multiple tables with interrelated fields?
- A. Hierarchical
- B. Relational
- C. Flat file
- D. Interrelated
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Arelational databaseis structured to recognize relations among stored items of information.
* Multiple tablesin a relational database can have interrelated fields.
* These relationships are often managed throughforeign keys, which reference the primary keys of other tables.
* This relational model allows for complex queries and data integrity across the database.
* Example:Tables such asCustomers,Orders, andProductsin a sales database, whereOrderstable may reference bothCustomersandProductstables to establish relationships.
References:
* "Database System Concepts" by Silberschatz, Korth, and Sudarshan.
* "SQL and Relational Theory" by C.J. Date.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A company wants to secure its computer systems and prevent any unauthorized access to its network. The company wants to implement a security solution that can restrict network traffic to only approved services and applications.
Which security technology will meet the needs of this company?
- A. Hardware security module (HSM)
- B. Two-factor authentication
- C. Antivirus tools
- D. Host-based firewall
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Host-based firewall.
According to the WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) materials, a host-based firewall enforces traffic control policies at the endpoint level. It can allow or deny traffic based on application, port, IP address, and protocol rules, restricting access to only approved services and applications on a system.
Antivirus tools (A) detect malware but do not control network traffic. Two-factor authentication (B) secures user access but does not manage network traffic. HSMs (D) handle encryption keys, not network access control.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Host-based firewalls restrict traffic at the system level, permitting only authorized services and applications, enhancing endpoint security."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Endpoint Protection and Firewalls
NEW QUESTION # 103
An application team manages a large farm of web servers on virtual machines in the cloud. The team wants to reduce the server load by caching static content. Adding a second layer of protection is also a requirement.
What should this team recommend in this scenario?
- A. Intrusion detection system (IDS)
- B. Network address translation (NAT)
- C. Reverse proxy
- D. Firewall rule changes
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Reverse proxy.
As per the WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) course content, a reverse proxy server acts on behalf of web servers by caching static content (such as images, scripts, and HTML files), significantly reducing server load. It also provides an additional layer of protection by hiding the backend servers from direct exposure to clients and enabling centralized application of security policies such as SSL termination and Web Application Firewall (WAF) integration.
Firewall rule changes (A) manage access control but do not handle caching or reduce load. An IDS (B) monitors for intrusions but doesn't offload traffic or cache content. NAT (D) translates IP addresses but doesn't cache content or add a protection layer.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"A reverse proxy server provides caching capabilities for static content and acts as a protective intermediary between client requests and backend servers, thus reducing server load and enhancing security."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Secure Network Design Concepts
NEW QUESTION # 104
A company has identified a potential risk associated with a new software implementation, which could result in a significant data breach.
Which step of the risk management life cycle involves implementing security controls to prevent the risk?
- A. Assess
- B. Control
- C. Identify
- D. Review
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Control.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), the control phase of the risk management life cycle involves implementing appropriate security measures or countermeasures to mitigate or eliminate identified risks. After a risk is assessed, controls are applied to address it and reduce its impact or likelihood.
Assess (A) evaluates risk severity. Identify (B) discovers risks. Review (D) checks the effectiveness of applied controls.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"The control phase of risk management focuses on applying security controls and mitigations to reduce the risk to an acceptable level."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Risk Management Life Cycle
NEW QUESTION # 105
A cloud hosting provider is concerned about the potential risks associated with attacks that target the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive data stored on its servers' volatile memory. The provider has decided to implement hardening techniques and endpoint security controls to mitigate the risk.
Which hardening technique will meet the needs of this provider?
- A. Enforcing a strong password complexity policy for all user accounts
- B. Implementing a next-generation antivirus system to detect and prevent malware attacks
- C. Implementing secure encrypted enclaves and AMD Secure Memory Encryption
- D. Conducting regular security awareness training for all employees
Answer: C
Explanation:
To protect datain use(within memory), the provider must implementhardware-level memory encryptionandtrusted execution environments(secure enclaves), which protect against cold boot attacks, memory scraping, and unauthorized access.
NIST SP 800-207A (Hardware-Enabled Security: Enclaves):
"Trusted execution environments and memory encryption mechanisms help ensure that data remains protected even when systems are compromised at lower levels." This is amodern cloud security best practiceespecially useful forconfidential computingenvironments.
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:System Security Engineering / Cryptography
Topic:Protect data in use with hardware-based encryption and enclaves
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which part of the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) identifies the server on which the web page can be found?
- A. Domain name
- B. Resource path ID
- C. IP address
- D. Protocol
Answer: A
Explanation:
* The domain name in a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) identifies the server on which the web page can be found.
* Example:
In the URL "http://www.example.com/index.html":
* "http" is the protocol.
* "www.example.com" is the domain name.
* "/index.html" is the resource path ID.
* The other options:
* The protocol specifies the communication method.
* The resource path ID specifies the specific page or resource on the server.
* The IP address is not typically visible in the URL itself but can be resolved via DNS.
* Therefore, the domain name is the correct part that identifies the server.
References:
* "Web Development and Design Foundations with HTML5" by Terry Felke-Morris, which explains URL components.
* "Internet and World Wide Web How to Program" by Paul Deitel and Harvey Deitel, which covers URLs and their structure.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A company is developing a new system to process personal information about its customers, including their names, addresses, and purchase histories.
Which term describes the process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects that the new system may have on the privacy of personal information and developing strategies to mitigate those risks?
- A. Risk management
- B. Disaster recovery (DR)
- C. Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA)
- D. Business continuity planning (BCP)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA).
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), a DPIA is conducted to assess how personal data is collected, stored, and processed, evaluating potential privacy impacts and defining measures to mitigate risks. This is essential for compliance with privacy laws and regulations, especially in systems handling sensitive customer information.
DR (A) and BCP (B) are about operational recovery, not data privacy. Risk management (D) is broader and not focused solely on privacy impact.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"A Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA) evaluates the effects of processing activities on the privacy of individuals and develops strategies to mitigate privacy risks."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Data Privacy and Protection Strategies
NEW QUESTION # 108
A software development company has experienced a noticeable slowdown in its network performance, which suggests that some machines on the network may have been infected by a botnet. The company has decided to analyze the threats and vulnerabilities within the enterprise based on the indicators of compromise to mitigate the risk.
What should the company do to detect a botnet and other malware-based threats within the enterprise based on the indicators of compromise?
- A. Constantly scan for known signatures on every machine
- B. Define strict firewall rules
- C. Implement a configuration management solution
- D. Use two-factor authentication for external users
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Constantly scan for known signatures on every machine.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), scanning for known malware signatures is an essential method for detecting infections such as botnets. Signature-based detection compares files and behaviors against databases of known indicators of compromise (IOCs).
Two-factor authentication (A) protects login processes but does not detect malware. Firewall rules (B) help control access but do not detect infections. Configuration management (D) ensures system setup integrity but does not detect botnets.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Signature-based scanning detects malware and botnets by comparing system files and behaviors against databases of known threats and indicators of compromise (IOCs)."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Malware Detection and Threat Response
NEW QUESTION # 109
A retail company wants to establish the frequency at which it needs to backup its critical data to ensure it can be restored in case of a disruption with the least amount of acceptable loss in recovery.
What is the term used to describe this metric?
- A. Recovery point objective (RPO)
- B. Business impact analysis (BIA)
- C. Disaster recovery (DR)
- D. Continuous data protection (CDP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D - Recovery point objective (RPO).
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), the RPO defines the maximum amount of data loss that is tolerable in terms of time. It sets the backup frequency to ensure that in the event of a disruption, no more than the specified amount of data is lost.
Continuous data protection (A) is a method but not the term for the metric. BIA (B) identifies impacts but does not define backup timing. DR (C) refers to the overall recovery process, not backup frequency.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Recovery point objective (RPO) defines the maximum age of files that must be recovered from backup storage for normal operations to resume after a failure."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Disaster Recovery and Recovery Objectives
NEW QUESTION # 110
An IT organization has seen a surge of ransomware and Trojan horse attacks recently.
Which action should the security team recommend to protect the IT infrastructure from commodity malware threats?
- A. Rerouting suspicious communications to a remote machine
- B. Implementing a two-factor authentication system
- C. Installing endpoint protection software
- D. Installing a firewall to identify malicious traffic
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is D - Installing endpoint protection software.
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) teaches that endpoint protection (including antivirus, anti-malware, and endpoint detection and response) is critical for detecting,blocking, and removing commodity malware like ransomware and Trojans.
Firewalls (A) help with perimeter security but don't directly block malware on endpoints. Rerouting communications (B) is not a standard protection method. Two-factor authentication (C) secures logins but does not protect systems from malware infection.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Endpoint protection software defends individual systems against malware threats by detecting, blocking, and removing malicious files and processes."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Endpoint Security Solutions
NEW QUESTION # 111
A cloud hosting provider is concerned about the potential risks associated with attacks that target the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive data stored on its servers' volatile storage. The provider has decided to implement hardening techniques and endpoint security controls to mitigate the risk.
Which hardening technique will meet the needs of this provider?
- A. Enforcing a strong password complexity policy for all user accounts
- B. Implementing a next-generation antivirus system to detect and prevent malware attacks
- C. Implementing secure encrypted enclaves and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) Secure Memory Encryption
- D. Conducting regular security awareness training for all employees
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A - Implementing secure encrypted enclaves and Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) Secure Memory Encryption.
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) explains that encryption at the memory level (such as AMD SME) and secure enclaves protect data in volatile memory, safeguarding it even if physical attacks occur.
Security training (B), antivirus (C), and password policies (D) improve security generally but do not specifically address data in volatile memory.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Encrypted enclaves and secure memory encryption protect sensitive data in volatile storage, maintaining confidentiality and integrity even during advanced attacks."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Server and Memory Security Controls
NEW QUESTION # 112
A project manager is working on a project that involves securing the network of a tall building. The manager is tasked with managing these risks effectively to ensure the successful completion of the project within a given time frame and budget. The manager identified multiple potential risks associated with the project.
What is the next step in the risk management life cycle?
- A. Assess
- B. Control
- C. Identify
- D. Review
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Assess.
As per WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) materials, after risks have been identified, the next step in the risk management life cycle is to assess them. Assessment involves analyzing and prioritizing the risks based on their potential impact and likelihood. Only after assessment can proper strategies be formulated for controlling and mitigating the risks.
Identification (A) occurs before assessment, while reviewing (B) and controlling (D) happen later in the process.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Following the identification of risks, the risk management process proceeds to risk assessment, where risks are analyzed and prioritized based on likelihood and impact to guide mitigation efforts."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Risk Management Process
NEW QUESTION # 113
What is a characteristic of algorithms?
- A. Random instructions
- B. No starting or stopping point
- C. Unambiguous rules
- D. Constantly changing
Answer: C
Explanation:
An algorithm is a defined set of step-by-step procedures or a set of rules to be followed to perform a specific task or solve a problem. Here are the characteristics that describe an algorithm:
* Unambiguous rules: Each step of an algorithm must be clearly defined and unambiguous. There should be no confusion in interpreting the instructions.
* Definiteness: The algorithm should have a clear starting and stopping point, leading to a precise output after a finite number of steps.
* Finiteness: Algorithms must terminate after a finite number of steps. They cannot run indefinitely.
* Input and Output: An algorithm should take zero or more inputs and produce at least one output.
Therefore, the correct answer is "Unambiguous rules," as it directly reflects the essential characteristic of an algorithm being precise and clear in its steps.
References
* Thomas H. Cormen, Charles E. Leiserson, Ronald L. Rivest, and Clifford Stein, "Introduction to Algorithms," MIT Press.
* Donald E. Knuth, "The Art of Computer Programming," Addison-Wesley.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which risk management strategy will ensure the secure storage of data on a new document management system?
- A. Configuration of the system to require frequent password changes
- B. Incorporation of a strict firewall policy to restrict access to the system's server
- C. Implementation of encryption for all data stored in the system
- D. Implementation of a secure virtual private network (VPN) connection for all remote access to the system
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Implementation of encryption for all data stored in the system.
WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488) emphasizes that encrypting data at rest ensures that even if storage systems are compromised, the data remains confidential and secure.
Password changes (A) help secure user accounts but not stored data. Firewall policies (B) and VPNs (D) protect data in transit and access control but not the storage layer itself.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Encrypting data at rest ensures that stored data remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access, even if storage devices are compromised."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Data Protection Strategies
NEW QUESTION # 115
A cybersecurity analyst at a manufacturing company is tasked with analyzing the Indicators of Compromise (IOCs) to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities within the organization.While viewing the Security Information and Event Management (SIEM), the analyst notices an unknown IP address logging in to the company's Secure Shell (SSH) server.
- A. Unpatched software
- B. Exfiltration
- C. Enumeration
- D. Weak passwords
Answer: D
Explanation:
An unknown IP address successfully logging in viaSSHindicates that authentication was achieved - likely due toweak or reused passwords. This is not enumeration or vulnerability exploitation, but acredential-based compromise.
NIST SP 800-118 (Guide to Enterprise Password Management):
"Weak, default, or reused passwords are among the most exploited vulnerabilities in enterprise networks, particularly on remote access services such as SSH." This is one of the most common findings inSIEM alertswhen password policies and access control mechanisms are improperly enforced.
#WGU Course Alignment:
Domain:System Security Engineering
Topic:Implement strong authentication practices and monitor remote access
NEW QUESTION # 116
A healthcare organization is concerned about the potential risks associated with unauthorized access to sensitive patient information on its endpoint devices. The organization has decided to implement hardening techniques and endpoint security controls to mitigate the risk.
Which hardening technique will meet the needs of this organization?
- A. Enforcing strict password policies for all user accounts
- B. Logging and monitoring endpoint devices
- C. Implementing a network-based intrusion detection and prevention system
- D. Conducting regular vulnerability assessments and penetration testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D - Enforcing strict password policies for all user accounts.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), enforcing strong password policies on endpoints is a critical step in hardening devices. Strong passwords prevent unauthorized users from easily gaining access to sensitive data on endpoint devices.
Network-based IDPS (A) protects the network but not specifically endpoints. Vulnerability assessments and penetration testing (B) identify vulnerabilities but do not directly secure endpoints. Logging and monitoring (C) detect incidents but do not prevent initial unauthorized access.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Implementing strong password policies for endpoint devices ensures that unauthorized users cannot easily access sensitive information, helping to harden systems against attacks."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Endpoint Security Controls
NEW QUESTION # 117
An e-learning company uses Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) to store e-books and video files that are served to customers through a custom application. The company has realized that someone has been stealing its intellectual property.
Which threat actor is most likely in this scenario?
- A. Advanced persistent threat
- B. Hacktivist
- C. Novice hacker
- D. Competitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is C - Competitor.
According to WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), competitors often attempt to steal intellectual property to gain a business advantage. Given the theft of valuable business assets (e-books and videos), the most likely actor is a competitor motivated by financial or market advantage, not ideology or random hacking.
An APT (A) is usually nation-state-sponsored and targets critical infrastructure. A novice hacker (B) might deface or cause damage but is less likely focused on IP theft. Hacktivists (D) are politically motivated, not financially.
Reference Extract from Study Guide:
"Competitors may engage in cyber espionage to steal intellectual property and gain market advantage, representing a significant threat to business assets."
- WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1 / D488), Threat Actor Categories
NEW QUESTION # 118
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